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  as2kinjal

  July 9, 2024 at 6:41 am

  Hey guys I have a question. If there’s an equation in the form of: f(x) * g(x) = 1, that is true for all values of x that are greater than zero, can I safely assume that both f(x) and g(x) are absolutely not equal to zero for any given value of x that is greater that zero? We don’t know the domain of either f(x) or g(x), just that (0, +inf. ) is a subset of both domains.